i barely even take people's fuss about translations seriously anymore, but a thought did occur to me the other day. The New Testament writers largely used and quoted from the Septuagint. The Septuagint was a translation of the Hebrew scriptures into Greek. Wouldn't it be interesting to determine the kind of the translation it is? How accurate of a translation is the Septuagint? Does it use strict formal equivalence, or is there some dynamic equivalence used? If the Septuagint fudged in places and if any dynamic equivalence was used, wouldn't it then be interesting if Jesus and the apostles used that translation? How could strict KJV-only or strict formal equivalence advocates deal with that fact?
i imagine someone has already done the kind of work i'm proposing, but i haven't come across it myself.